(01-22-2026, 10:08 AM)Ninurta Wrote: The Exodus is supposed to have happened about 1440 BC. So, not Hebrew.
Moses was supposed to have been raised by Pharaoh's daughter, in Pharaoh's household from right after his birth until adulthood, so what he could read and write had to be either hieroglyphics or hieratic.
If he could read the original set of tablets written by God, then they also had to be written in either hieroglyphic or hieratic.
Therefore, both sets of tablets had to be written in either Egyptian hieroglyphics or Egyptian hieratic. Otherwise, no one there could have read them, and to those present they would have just been rock slabs with squiggly things on them.
One way to know for sure would be to find the Ark of the Covenant, because it is supposed to house the tablets.
There is also a slight possibility that they were written in Akkadian cuneiform, because that became a sort of lingua franca in the middle east in the second millennium BC. Yet another possibility is proto-Sianitic, since it did exist at the time as shown by finds a Serabit el Khadim.
https://jewishstudies.rutgers.edu/images...cripts.pdf
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In the Masoretic Text from which the Bible is translated, the commandments do not say "Thou shalt not kill" They say "thou shalt not do murder". There is a difference, because some killings are justified.
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remember Moses spent a fairly long time with Jethro and his family. it is entirely possible that he learned their language or other before returning to Egypt. and if i'm not mistaken Jethro was a decedent of Abraham thru his first born Ishmael it is said they spoke Hebrew by many scholars. it also believed that Abraham being from Ur of the Chaldean's spoke Akkadian and the various peoples languages that they lived with though their travels through the land. then you can't forgot Melchizedek / Jesus Abraham's people stayed with. we all know he could speak any language.
then you have to think about the Hebrew/Apiru/ Habriu school of thought.
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Jack Reacher